Question on paid leave for Covid affected (affected at workplace) person in cooperative sector.

Dear Sir, Madam, As the subject touches on the aspect of the question, in regards to labour law. I would like to describe the scenario. One of my close relatives is working in a cooperative sector (Milk Dairy) in Pune. A few months back one of the employees who was working with my relative was tested positive for Covid-19, and due to this, all the other employees were advised to get themselves tested. Later it was found that almost all employees in that department were positive and were asked to quarantine themselves as per the corporation protocol. Initially, the employer (boss of my relative) informed (by word of mouth) that they would be paid for the time they are in quarantine. But now once they are back after testing negative and fit for work, the employer has informed that the management had decided that they cannot give paid leaves and either they have to apply for their leaves or get loss of pay. Secondly, one of the heads of departments called my relative and orally informed that there will be an enquiry about people who knew the first person who got infected, and my relative knew about it and he will name my relative that he knew about the infection earlier. My questions: 1) Does the employer have the right to not pay the employees, given that the employees were infected at the workplace? 2) How can this be proven that the employees (apart from first infection case) were affected at the workplace? 3) Can the bosses, intimidate the employee of an enquiry and possible consequences, without any material proof? 4) As it is well-known that the cooperative sectors are highly political workplace, which is a cause of mental harassment as well for my relative, how can this angle be associated with the above scenario of intimidation, false accusing and injustice by not paying for the period in quarantine? 5) Under which provision can a legal notice be served to the employer/the boss himself with the above information? Important point: My relative is a female with a kid of 3 years old, how can someone with her background goto the workplace if she already knew a person who is affected, the above intimidation is as ridiculous as it sounds, given this information. Can this be made as a point in a court of law, in case it comes to that?