Sale of ancestral land and reclaim by the heirs after 07 yrs
I purchased a property which was an ancestral property, belonging to my grand father and partitioned between my father and uncle-1 and uncle-2 in 2002. In the same year uncle-1 sells his share to uncle-2 without the signatures of his heirs (in sale deed).
In 2007 uncle-2 sells it me (without the signatures of his heirs), but with full knowledge of all the heirs as we are all brothers (my father and my uncles).
Now in 2014, the son of uncle-2 has filed a case in the court, where he has stated that his father has sold it without his knowledge and he wants to reclaim it.
My uncle-2 and his son have now conspired to reclaim the land with malicious intent by fraudulent means.
What is the merit of the case. I purchased it through a sale deed in 2007 and in 2014 my cousin brother who is a wayward person not working and earning any money and is still supported by his father (who sold it to me), now aged 36, has filed a case.
I want to know if the claim of my cousin brother is legally valid, as he staking claim after 07 yrs of sale of the property and the ancestral property was partitioned amongst my father and uncles and then sold to me.
Kindly advise me as to how to legally argue my right and prove that the father and the son have conspired to reclaim it.
Asked 10 years ago in Property Law
Sir, Iam replying too your queries:
1) what basis you say property is ancestral ? merely because it was owned by your grand father does not make it ancestral:
It was purchased by my grand father in 1945.
2) was deed of partition made in writing in 2002 ? was it duly stamped and registered?
Yes, the partion release deed was made in writing on 24.12.2002 by my father and uncle-1 to uncle2 and duly stamped registered.
3) did your grand father die intestate?
Yes
4) was the sale deed in 2002 made by uncle no 1 to uncle 2 duly stamped and registered ?
Yes
5) if the property was self acquired property of your grand father and on his death each legal heir ie your father and 2 uncle partitioned property by Partition deed each legal heir would be absolute owner of his share .
6) sale by 2nd uncle to you by duly stamped and registered sale deed would make you absolute owner of the property.
Uncle-2 sold his share and that from uncle-1 to me, through duly registered sale deed for Rs.4 lacs in Aug 2007.
7) claim made by 2nd uncle son would be devoid of merits.
Sir, I have replied to your queries, please enlighten me on the merits of my right on the property.
8) contact a local lawyer . the averments made in the suit filed by 2nd uncle son has to be seen to advice further
Asked 10 years ago